The ISTQB Foundation Level exam does not only check whether you remember specific definitions. Many questions require you to understand a situation, identify the correct testing technique, assess a risk, or apply theoretical knowledge to a practical example.
That is why simply reading the syllabus may not be enough.
You should also become familiar with the typical structure of exam questions, learn how to eliminate incorrect answers, and pay close attention to words such as “best,” “most appropriate,” “always,” or “never.”
In this article, you will find 10 original questions based on the topics covered in the current ISTQB Foundation Level syllabus.
Each question includes the correct answer and a detailed explanation.
Please remember that these are not real or leaked exam questions. They were created to help you check your knowledge and better understand how particular topics may be tested during the exam.
What does the ISTQB Foundation Level exam look like?
The Foundation Level exam consists of 40 questions.
You receive one point for each correct answer. To pass the exam, you need to score at least 26 points, which means 65 percent.
The standard exam duration is 60 minutes. Candidates taking the exam in a language that is not their native language may receive additional time, depending on the examination provider’s rules.
The exam includes questions with different levels of difficulty.
Some questions check your knowledge of basic concepts and definitions. Others describe practical situations that you need to analyze.
You may also encounter questions that require you to apply a test technique, such as equivalence partitioning or boundary value analysis.
Let us move on to the questions.
Question 1: What is one of the main objectives of testing?
Which statement best describes one of the main objectives of software testing?
A. To prove that the tested system contains no defects
B. To find every possible defect before the product is released
C. To reduce risk and increase confidence in the quality of the product
D. To guarantee that users will never experience a system failure
Correct answer: C
Explanation
Testing can increase confidence in the quality of a product and reduce the level of risk associated with using it.
However, testing cannot prove that a system is completely free from defects.
Even when all executed tests pass, it only means that no failures were observed under the tested conditions and with the selected test data.
Defects may still exist in areas that were not tested.
Answers A, B, and D use wording that suggests complete certainty.
Statements like these should immediately attract your attention during the exam.
Testing helps reduce risk, but it cannot guarantee that a system is completely free from defects.
Question 2: What is the pesticide paradox?
A test team has been running exactly the same regression tests for several months. Over time, these tests stop detecting new defects.
Which testing principle best describes this situation?
A. Testing shows the presence, not the absence, of defects
B. Testing is context dependent
C. Defects cluster together
D. Tests lose their effectiveness over time if they are not updated
Correct answer: D
Explanation
This situation describes the pesticide paradox.
If the same tests are executed repeatedly with the same data and test paths, they may gradually become less effective at detecting new defects.
This does not mean that the system is now free from defects.
It is more likely that the tests continue to cover the same functions, conditions, and scenarios, while new problems exist in different areas.
For this reason, test cases should be regularly reviewed, updated, and expanded.
This may include:
- using new test data,
- adding new test cases,
- testing newly identified risk areas,
- updating tests after requirements change,
- creating tests based on previously detected defects.
During the exam, the name of the principle may not be mentioned directly.
Instead, you may receive a description of a situation and need to identify the principle that applies.
Question 3: Which activity determines what should be tested?
During which test activity does the team analyze the test basis and identify features, conditions, and areas that need to be tested?
A. Test planning
B. Test analysis
C. Test implementation
D. Test completion
Correct answer: B
Explanation
During test analysis, the team primarily determines what should be tested.
The team may analyze:
- requirements,
- user stories,
- acceptance criteria,
- models,
- specifications,
- technical documentation.
Based on this information, the team identifies test conditions.
A test condition describes an aspect of the system that should be verified.
A useful distinction is:
- Test analysis answers the question: “What should be tested?”
- Test design answers the question: “How should it be tested?”
- Test implementation includes preparing specific test cases, test data, test procedures, and test suites.
- Test execution includes running the tests and comparing actual results with expected results.
Exam questions about test activities often contain answers that sound very similar.
That is why it is important to understand the purpose of each activity instead of only memorizing its name.
Question 4: What does shift-left mean?
Which activity is the best example of the shift-left approach?
A. Moving all testing activities to the end of the project
B. Starting testing only after the entire implementation has been completed
C. Reviewing requirements and acceptance criteria before development begins
D. Running only automated tests in the production environment
Correct answer: C
Explanation
Shift-left means performing selected quality and testing activities earlier in the software development lifecycle.
A good example is involving testers in:
- requirement analysis,
- user story reviews,
- acceptance criteria preparation,
- test planning before implementation begins.
The earlier a problem is detected, the easier and less expensive it is usually to fix.
If an ambiguity is found in a requirement, it may be corrected with very little effort.
If the same problem is discovered after implementation, the team may need to change the source code, tests, documentation, and sometimes even the system architecture.
Shift-left does not mean that every test must be performed at the beginning of a project.
Some types of testing still require an implemented component, an integrated system, or a production-like environment.
The main idea is to begin quality-related activities as early as reasonably possible.
Question 5: Which activity is an example of static testing?
Which of the following activities is an example of static testing?
A. Running component tests
B. Checking the behavior of a login form
C. Reviewing requirements without executing the software
D. Running a performance test
Correct answer: C
Explanation
Static testing involves examining work products without executing the software.
Examples include reviews of:
- requirements,
- specifications,
- source code,
- test cases,
- models,
- documentation.
Dynamic testing requires the software to be executed.
Component tests, login form tests, and performance tests are therefore examples of dynamic testing.
Static testing makes it possible to detect problems very early.
During a requirement review, the team may identify:
- unclear statements,
- contradictory requirements,
- missing information,
- requirements that cannot be tested,
- incorrect assumptions.
Static testing is not limited to finding defects in source code.
Problems may also exist in requirements, designs, models, documents, or test cases.
Question 6: Equivalence partitioning
An “Age” field accepts integer values from 18 to 65 inclusive.
Which set of test data covers all equivalence partitions?
A. 18, 40, 65
B. 17, 40, 66
C. 18, 19, 20
D. 17, 18, 65
Correct answer: B
Explanation
In this example, we can identify three equivalence partitions:
- Values lower than 18 – invalid partition
- Values from 18 to 65 – valid partition
- Values greater than 65 – invalid partition
The values 17, 40, and 66 include one representative from each partition.
Equivalence partitioning is based on the assumption that values within the same partition should be processed by the system in a similar way.
Therefore, it is not necessary to test every number between 18 and 65 if the goal is only to cover all equivalence partitions.
Answer A contains only valid values.
Answer C also tests only the valid partition.
Answer D does not include a value greater than 65.
During the exam, it is often useful to identify the partitions yourself before comparing them with the available answers.
Question 7: Boundary value analysis
An “Age” field accepts integer values from 18 to 65 inclusive.
Which set of test data represents two-value boundary value analysis?
A. 18 and 65
B. 17, 18, 65, and 66
C. 16, 17, 18, 65, 66, and 67
D. 17, 40, and 66
Correct answer: B
Explanation
The boundaries of the valid range are 18 and 65.
In two-value boundary value analysis, two values are considered for each boundary:
- the value directly on the boundary,
- the closest value on the other side of the boundary.
This gives us:
- 17 – directly below the lower boundary,
- 18 – the lower valid boundary,
- 65 – the upper valid boundary,
- 66 – directly above the upper boundary.
Answer A includes only the valid boundary values. It does not include the values immediately outside the valid range.
Answer C contains additional values and is closer to an extended form of boundary value analysis.
Answer D includes one value below the range, one typical valid value, and one value above the range, but it does not represent complete two-value boundary value analysis.
Boundary value analysis questions can be difficult because different variants of the technique are easy to confuse.
Always check exactly which type of boundary analysis is required.
Question 8: Decision table testing
An online store provides free delivery if the customer has a premium account or if the order value is at least $200.
How many combinations should be included in a complete decision table if both conditions can have the value “yes” or “no”?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Correct answer: C
Explanation
There are two independent conditions:
- The customer has a premium account: yes or no.
- The order value is at least $200: yes or no.
The number of possible combinations can be calculated as 2².
This gives four combinations:
- Premium account: yes, order value at least $200: yes
- Premium account: yes, order value at least $200: no
- Premium account: no, order value at least $200: yes
- Premium account: no, order value at least $200: no
In the first three cases, the customer receives free delivery.
Only in the final case is free delivery not provided.
Decision tables are particularly useful when an outcome depends on several business conditions.
They help organize business rules and ensure that no important combination has been missed.
Question 9: State transition testing
A user account is locked after three consecutive failed login attempts.
A successful login resets the failed attempt counter to zero.
What will be the state of the account after the following sequence?
- Failed login
- Failed login
- Successful login
- Failed login
- Failed login
A. The account will be locked after the second step
B. The account will be locked after the fifth step
C. The account will remain active
D. The state of the account cannot be determined
Correct answer: C
Explanation
After the first two failed login attempts, the counter is equal to 2.
The user then logs in successfully, which resets the counter to zero.
The next two failed login attempts increase the counter back to 2.
Because the account is locked only after three consecutive failed attempts, the account remains active.
This question checks not only your understanding of state transition testing, but also your ability to carefully follow a sequence of events.
A common mistake is to add all failed login attempts together and ignore the information that a successful login resets the counter.
State transition testing is useful for testing:
- login processes,
- account locking,
- order statuses,
- workflows,
- subscriptions,
- payment processes,
- systems whose behavior depends on their current state.
Question 10: Risk-based testing
A test team has limited time before an application is released.
Two areas have been identified:
- Area A: high probability of failure and very serious business consequences,
- Area B: low probability of failure and minor business consequences.
Which area should receive a higher testing priority?
A. Area A
B. Area B
C. Both areas should always receive the same priority
D. Testing priority cannot be determined based on risk
Correct answer: A
Explanation
The level of product risk depends mainly on two factors:
- the probability that a problem will occur,
- the impact that the problem may have.
Area A has both a high probability of failure and serious business consequences.
For this reason, it should receive a higher testing priority.
Risk-based testing helps the team decide:
- which areas should be tested first,
- where more detailed testing is needed,
- where more testing time should be invested,
- which tests must be executed when time is limited,
- where more experienced testers should be involved.
This does not necessarily mean that Area B will not be tested at all.
However, when resources are limited, the team should begin with the area whose failure could cause the greatest damage.
How should you interpret your result?
Count how many questions you answered correctly.
9 to 10 correct answers
This is a very good result.
You understand the topics presented in this article and can apply your knowledge to practical situations.
However, you should still complete full practice exams containing 40 questions to improve your time management.
7 to 8 correct answers
You already have a solid foundation.
However, some areas still require additional review.
Pay particular attention to questions where you guessed or were not completely sure about the answer.
5 to 6 correct answers
You should return to the syllabus and review the most important concepts in a structured way.
Do not only memorize the correct answer.
Try to understand why the other answers are incorrect.
Fewer than 5 correct answers
You probably need more preparation time.
Start with the fundamentals of testing, test activities, static testing, and the most important test techniques.
Common mistakes in ISTQB exam questions
One of the most common mistakes is reading questions too quickly.
Sometimes, one word can completely change the meaning of a question.
Pay particular attention to phrases such as:
- “the best answer,”
- “the most appropriate action,”
- “the first activity,”
- “the minimum coverage,”
- “exactly two answers.”
Another common mistake is answering based on personal work experience instead of the terminology and approach described in the syllabus.
A testing process in a real company may look different.
Activities may have different names, and one person may be responsible for several tasks.
During the exam, however, you should select the answer that is consistent with the official syllabus.
You should also be careful with answers containing words such as:
- “always,”
- “never,”
- “all,”
- “guarantees.”
Testing rarely provides complete certainty.
Answers containing absolute statements are therefore often incorrect, although you should never reject them automatically without reading the full sentence.
How can you prepare effectively for the exam?
The best results come from combining theoretical learning with regular practice.
First, study a particular chapter of the syllabus.
Then solve questions related to that topic.
After every incorrect answer, return to the theory and check why your selected answer was wrong.
Do not memorize answers without understanding them.
During the real exam, the same concept may be described using a completely different situation.
If you understand the underlying idea, you should still be able to answer correctly even when the names, values, or examples change.
Before taking the exam, complete several full practice exams under time pressure.
Solving 40 questions in one session is very different from answering individual questions during your daily study.
It is also useful to mark difficult questions and return to them later.
If one question takes too much time, move on.
The following questions may be much easier.
Summary
Preparing for the ISTQB Foundation Level exam requires both knowledge of the main concepts and the ability to apply them in practical situations.
Some of the most important topics include:
- testing objectives and principles,
- test activities,
- static testing,
- testing in the software development lifecycle,
- equivalence partitioning,
- boundary value analysis,
- decision table testing,
- state transition testing,
- risk-based testing.
The 10 questions in this article are only a starting point.
The more different examples you analyze before the exam, the easier it will be to recognize common question patterns and eliminate incorrect answers.
If you would like to practice more questions with answers and detailed explanations, check out my course “ISTQB Foundation Level Exam Preparation for Software Testing.”
The course will help you systematically review your knowledge and prepare for the exam format.
